Frankly, this bothers me. Sure, to talk of something discriminating against women because it discriminates against "pregnant persons" makes sense, because I can hardly think of a male pregnant person.
But look at the examples: "It's common for white Americans to declare that there is no racism in America, and that there is only classism. This argument is an example of the pregnant person fallacy, because it reflects willful ignorance of racial disparities in socioeconomic status."
This (1) excludes from discussion the question of poor whites and (2) shows an America-centric bias, not only in its association of race and socioeconomic status, but also in its attempt to veer the discussion of class towards, exclusively, one of race. By seeking to attribute the question of poverty to institutional racism, in a country where free-market ideologies still hold sway, this might even be an instance of classism. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 70.30.229.210 (talk • contribs) 18:23, February 11, 2011
- (1) This is exactly what "willfull ignorance of racial disparities in socioeconomic status" means. What about the concept that black people are more likely to be poor in the US than white people implies that poor whites don't exist?
- (2) I would encourage you to edit the article to reflect a more global perspective. We can only comment on the cultures that we are familiar with. Monadic 20:12, February 11, 2011 (UTC)